1. What method can be used to mitigate ping sweeps?
using encrypted or hashed authentication protocols
installing antivirus software on hosts
deploying antisniffer software on all network devices
blocking ICMP echo and echo-replies at the network edge*
2. What are the three major components of a worm attack? (Choose three.)
a penetration mechanism
an infecting vulnerability
an enabling vulnerability*
a probing mechanism
a propagation mechanism*
3. Which statement accurately characterizes the evolution of threats to network security?
Internal threats can cause even greater damage than external threats.*
Threats have become less sophisticated while the technical knowledge needed by an attacker has grown.
Early Internet users often engaged in activities that would harm other users.
Internet architects planned for network security from the beginning.
4. What causes a buffer overflow?
launching a security countermeasure to mitigate a Trojan horse
sending repeated connections such as Telnet to a particular device, thus denying other data sources.
downloading and installing too many software updates at one time
attempting to write more data to a memory location than that location can hold*
sending too much information to two or more interfaces of the same device, thereby causing dropped packets
5. What commonly motivates cybercriminals to attack networks as compared to hactivists or state-sponsored hackers?
status among peers
6. Which two network security solutions can be used to mitigate DoS attacks? (Choose two.)
intrusion protection systems*
applying user authentication
7. Which two statements characterize DoS attacks? (Choose two.)
They are difficult to conduct and are initiated only by very skilled attackers.
They are commonly launched with a tool called L0phtCrack.
Examples include smurf attacks and ping of death attacks.*
They attempt to compromise the availability of a network, host, or application.*
They always precede access attacks.
8. An attacker is using a laptop as a rogue access point to capture all network traffic from a targeted user. Which type of attack is this?
man in the middle*
9. What functional area of the Cisco Network Foundation Protection framework is responsible for device-generated packets required for network operation, such as ARP message exchanges and routing advertisements?
10. What are the three components of information security ensured by cryptography? (Choose three.)
11. What is the primary method for mitigating malware?
using encrypted or hashed authentication protocols
installing antivirus software on all hosts*
blocking ICMP echo and echo-replies at the network edge
deploying intrusion prevention systems throughout the network
12. What is an objective of a state-sponsored attack?
to gain financial prosperity
to sell operation system vulnerabilities to other hackers
to gain attention
to right a perceived wrong*
13. What role does the Security Intelligence Operations (SIO) play in the Cisco SecureX architecture?
identifying and stopping malicious traffic*
14. What worm mitigation phase involves actively disinfecting infected systems?
15. How is a smurf attack conducted?
by sending a large number of packets to overflow the allocated buffer memory of the target device
by sending a large number of ICMP requests to directed broadcast addresses from a spoofed source address on the same network*
by sending a large number of TCP SYN packets to a target device from a spoofed source address
by sending an echo request in an IP packet larger than the maximum packet size of 65,535 bytes
16. What is a characteristic of a Trojan horse as it relates to network security?
Malware is contained in a seemingly legitimate executable program.*
Extreme quantities of data are sent to a particular network device interface.
An electronic dictionary is used to obtain a password to be used to infiltrate a key network device.
Too much information is destined for a particular memory block causing additional memory areas to be affected.
17. What is the first step in the risk management process specified by the ISO/IEC?
Create a security policy.
Conduct a risk assessment.*
Inventory and classify IT assets.
Create a security governance model.
18. What is the significant characteristic of worm malware?
A worm can execute independently*
A worm must be triggered by an event on the host system.
Worm malware disguises itself as legitimate software
Once installed on a host system, a worm does not replicate itself.
19. Which condition describes the potential threat created by Instant On in a data center?
when the primary firewall in the data center crashes
when an attacker hijacks a VM hypervisor and then launches attacks against other devices in the data center
when the primary IPS appliance is malfunctioning
when a VM that may have outdated security policies is brought online after a long period of inactivity.*
20. What are the three core components of the Cisco Secure Data Center solution? (Choose three.)
21. A disgruntled employee is using Wireshark to discover administrative Telnet usernames and passwords. What type of network attack does this describe?
denial of service
22. Which two statements describe access attacks? (Choose two.)
Trust exploitation attacks often involve the use of a laptop to act as a rogue access point to capture and copy all network traffic in a public location, such as a wireless hotspot.
To detect listening services, port scanning attacks scan a range of TCP or UDP port numbers on a host
Buffer overflow attacks write data beyond the hallocated buffer memory to overwrite valid data or to exploit systems to execute malicious code.*
Password attacks can be implemented by the use os brute-force attack methods, Trojan horse, or packet sniffers.*
Port redirection attacks use a network adapter card in promiscuous mode to capture all network packets that are sent across a LAN.
23. What is a ping sweep?
a scanning technique that examines a range of TCP or UDP port numbers on a host to detect listening services.
a software application that enables the capture of all network packets that are sent across a LAN.
a query and response protocol that identifies information about a domain, including the addresses that are assigned to that domain
a network scanning technique that indicates the live hosts in a range of IP addresses.*