Ad Blocker Detected
Our website is made possible by displaying online advertisements to our visitors. Please consider supporting us by disabling your ad blocker.
CCNA 4 v6.0 Connecting Networks Final Exam Answers Option A
1. Which statement best describes a WAN?
A WAN interconnects LANs over long distances.*
A WAN is a public utility that enables access to the Internet.
WAN is another name for the Internet.
A WAN is a LAN that is extended to provide secure remote network access.
2. Connecting offices at different locations using the Internet can be economical for a business. What are two important business policy issues that should be addressed when using the Internet for this purpose? (Choose two.)
3. What is a disadvantage of a packet-switched network compared to a circuit-switched network?
4. A company is considering updating the campus WAN connection. Which two WAN options are examples of the private WAN architecture? (Choose two.)
digital subscriber line
5. Which statement describes a characteristic of dense wavelength division multiplexing (DWDM)?
It supports the SONET standard, but not the SDH standard.
It enables bidirectional communications over one pair of copper cables.
It can be used in long-range communications, like connections between ISPs.*
It assigns incoming electrical signals to specific frequencies.
6. Which WAN technology can serve as the underlying network to carry multiple types of network traffic such as IP, ATM, Ethernet, and DSL?
7. Which two WAN technologies are more likely to be used by a business than by teleworkers or home users? (Choose two.)
8. The security policy in a company specifies that the staff in the sales department must use a VPN to connect to the corporate network to access the sales data when they travel to meet customers. What component is needed by the sales staff to establish a remote VPN connection?
VPN client software*
9. A corporation is searching for an easy and low cost solution to provide teleworkers with a secure connection to headquarters. Which solution should be selected?
leased line connection
site-to-site VPN over the Internet
remote access VPN over the Internet*
10. How many DS0 channels are bundled to produce a 1.544 Mbps T1 line?
11. Refer to the exhibit.
Which type of Layer 2 encapsulation used for connection D requires Cisco routers?
12. Which three statements are true about PPP? (Choose three.)
PPP can use synchronous and asynchronous circuits.*
PPP can only be used between two Cisco devices.
PPP carries packets from several network layer protocols in LCPs.
PPP uses LCPs to establish, configure, and test the data-link connection.*
PPP uses LCPs to agree on format options such as authentication, compression, and error detection.*
13. A network administrator is configuring a PPP link with the commands:
R1(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
R1(config-if)# ppp quality 70
What is the effect of these commands?
The PPP link will be closed down if the link quality drops below 70 percent.*
The NCP will send a message to the sending device if the link usage reaches 70 percent.
The LCP establishment phase will not start until the bandwidth reaches 70 percent or more.
The PPP link will not be established if more than 30 percent of options cannot be accepted.
14. What function is provided by Multilink PPP?
spreading traffic across multiple physical WAN links*
dividing the bandwidth of a single link into separate time slots
enabling traffic from multiple VLANs to travel over a single Layer 2 link
creating one logical link between two LAN switches via the use of multiple physical links
15. The graphic shows two boxes. The first box has the following output:R1(config)# show running-config
username r2 password 0 Cisco
ip address 188.8.131.52 255.255.255.252
ppp authentication chapThe second box has this output:R2(config)# show running-config
username r1 password 0 Cisco
ip address 184.108.40.206 255.255.255.252
ppp authentication chap
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator is configuring the PPP link between the routers R1 and R2. However, the link cannot be established. Based on the partial output of the show running-config command, what is the cause of the problem?
The usernames do not match each other.
The usernames do not match the host names.*
The passwords for CHAP should be in lowercase.
The username r1 should be configured on the router R1 and the username r2 should be configured on the router R2.
16. Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator has configured routers RTA and RTB, but cannot ping from serial interface to serial interface. Which layer of the OSI model is the most likely cause of the problem?
17. What advantage does DSL have compared to cable technology?
DSL upload and download speeds are always the same.
DSL is faster.
DSL has no distance limitations.
DSL is not a shared medium.*
18. Which broadband technology would be best for a user that needs remote access when traveling in mountains and at sea?
19. Which technology requires the use of PPPoE to provide PPP connections to customers?
dialup analog modem
dialup ISDN modem
20. Refer to the exhibit.
What is the network administrator verifying when issuing the show ip interface brief command on R1 in respect to the PPPoE connection to R2?
that the Dialer1 interface has been manually assigned an IP address
that the Dialer1 interface is up and up
that the Dialer1 interface has been assigned an IP address by the ISP router*
that the IP address on R1 G0/1 is in the same network range as the DSL modem
21. Which technology creates a mapping of public IP addresses for remote tunnel spokes in a DMVPN configuration?
22. What is the purpose of the generic routing encapsulation tunneling protocol?
to provide packet level encryption of IP traffic between remote sites
to manage the transportation of IP multicast and multiprotocol traffic between remote sites*
to support basic unencrypted IP tunneling using multivendor routers between remote sites
to provide fixed flow-control mechanisms with IP tunneling between remote sites
23. Refer to the exhibit.
What is used to exchange routing information between routers within each AS?
IGP routing protocols*
EGP routing protocols
24. Refer to the exhibit.
All routers are successfully running the BGP routing protocol. How many routers must use EBGP in order to share routing information across the autonomous systems?
25. Which IPv4 address range covers all IP addresses that match the ACL filter specified by 172.16.2.0 with wildcard mask 0.0.1.255?
172.16.2.0 to 172.16.2.255
172.16.2.1 to 172.16.3.254
172.16.2.0 to 172.16.3.255*
172.16.2.1 to 172.16.255.255
26. Refer to the exhibit.
A named access list called chemistry_block has been written to prevent users on the Chemistry Network and public Internet from access to Records Server. All other users within the school should have access to this server. The list contains the following statements:
deny 172.16.102.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.104.252 0.0.0.0
permit 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 172.16.104.252 0.0.0.0
Which command sequence will place this list to meet these requirements?
Hera(config)# interface fa0/0
Hera(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block in
Hera(config)# interface s0/0/0
Hera(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block out
Apollo(config)# interface s0/0/0
Apollo(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block out
Apollo(config)# interface s0/0/1
Apollo(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block in
Athena(config)# interface s0/0/1
Athena(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block in
Athena(config)# interface fa0/0
Athena(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block out*
27. What guideline is generally followed about the placement of extended access control lists?
They should be placed as close as possible to the source of the traffic to be denied.*
They should be placed as close as possible to the destination of the traffic to be denied.
They should be placed on the fastest interface available.
They should be placed on the destination WAN link.
28. In the creation of an IPv6 ACL, what is the purpose of the implicit final command entries, permit icmp any any nd-na and permit icmp any any nd-ns?
to allow IPv6 to MAC address resolution*
to allow forwarding of IPv6 multicast packets
to allow automatic address configuration
to allow forwarding of ICMPv6 packets
29. A network administrator is testing IPv6 connectivity to a web server. The network administrator does not want any other host to connect to the web server except for the one test computer. Which type of IPv6 ACL could be used for this situation?
only a standard ACL
a standard or extended ACL
only an extended ACL
an extended, named, or numbered ACL
only a named ACL*
30. Refer to the exhibit.
The IPv6 access list LIMITED_ACCESS is applied on the S0/0/0 interface of R1 in the inbound direction. Which IPv6 packets from the ISP will be dropped by the ACL on R1?
HTTPS packets to PC1
ICMPv6 packets that are destined to PC1*
packets that are destined to PC1 on port 80
neighbor advertisements that are received from the ISP router
31. What is a secure configuration option for remote access to a network device?
Configure an ACL and apply it to the VTY lines.
32. What protocol should be disabled to help mitigate VLAN attacks?
33. Which term describes the role of a Cisco switch in the 802.1X port-based access control?
34. What two protocols are supported on Cisco devices for AAA communications? (Choose two.)
35. In configuring SNMPv3, what is the purpose of creating an ACL?
to define the source traffic that is allowed to create a VPN tunnel
to define the type of traffic that is allowed on the management network
to specify the source addresses allowed to access the SNMP agent*
to define the protocols allowed to be used for authentication and encryption
36. Refer to the exhibit.
What feature does an SNMP manager need in order to be able to set a parameter on switch ACSw1?
a manager who is using an SNMP string of K44p0ut
a manager who is using an Inform Request MIB
a manager who is using host 192.168.0.5*
a manager who is using authPriv
37. Which Cisco feature sends copies of frames entering one port to a different port on the same switch in order to perform traffic analysis?
38. What are two characteristics of video traffic? (Choose two.)
Video traffic is more resilient to loss than voice traffic is.
Video traffic is unpredictable and inconsistent.*
Video traffic latency should not exceed 400 ms.*
Video traffic requires a minimum of 30 kbs of bandwidth.
Video traffic consumes less network resources than voice traffic consumes.
39. Which QoS mechanism allows delay-sensitive data, such as voice, to be sent first before packets in other queues are sent?
40. Refer to the exhibit. As traffic is forwarded out an egress interface with QoS treatment, which congestion avoidance technique is used?
weighted random early detection
classification and marking
41. Which type of QoS marking is applied to Ethernet frames?
42. What is the function of a QoS trust boundary?
A trust boundary identifies the location where traffic cannot be remarked.
A trust boundary identifies which devices trust the marking on packets that enter a network.*
A trust boundary only allows traffic to enter if it has previously been marked.
A trust boundary only allows traffic from trusted endpoints to enter the network.
43. A vibration sensor on an automated production line detects an unusual condition. The sensor communicates with a controller that automatically shuts down the line and activates an alarm. What type of communication does this scenario represent?
44. Which pillar of the Cisco IoT System allows data to be analyzed and managed at the location where it is generated?
application enhancement platform
45. Which Cloud computing service would be best for a new organization that cannot afford physical servers and networking equipment and must purchase network services on-demand?
46. A data center has recently updated a physical server to host multiple operating systems on a single CPU. The data center can now provide each customer with a separate web server without having to allocate an actual discrete server for each customer. What is the networking trend that is being implemented by the data center in this situation?
maintaining communication integrity
47. What is used to pre-populate the adjacency table on Cisco devices that use CEF to process packets?
the ARP table*
the routing table
48. Which component of the ACI architecture translates application policies into network programming?
the Nexus 9000 switch
the Application Network Profile endpoints
the Application Policy Infrastructure Controller*
49. Which two pieces of information should be included in a logical topology diagram of a network? (Choose two.)
cable type and identifier
50. Which network performance statistics should be measured in order to verify SLA compliance?
NAT translation statistics
device CPU and memory utilization
latency, jitter, and packet loss*
the number of error messages that are logged on the syslog server
51. Which feature sends simulated data across the network and measures performance between multiple network locations?
52. Which troubleshooting tool would a network administrator use to check the Layer 2 header of frames that are leaving a particular host?
53. Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF network. The 10.10.0.0/16 network is not showing up in the routing table of Router1. What is the probable cause of this problem?
The serial interface on Router2 is down.
The OSPF process is not running on Router2.
The OSPF process is configured incorrectly on Router1.
There is an incorrect wildcard mask statement for network 10.10.0.0/16 on Router2.*
54. Refer to the exhibit.
A user turns on a PC after it is serviced and calls the help desk to report that the PC seems unable to reach the Internet. The technician asks the user to issue the arp –a and ipconfig commands. Based on the output, what are two possible causes of the problem? (Choose two.)
The IP configuration is incorrect.*
The network cable is unplugged.
The DNS server address is not configured.
The subnet mask is configured incorrectly.
The default gateway device cannot be contacted.*
55. Match OoS techniques with the description. (Not all options are used.)