Cisco CCNA 200-125 Certification Exam Answers 70 questions last 2018 Part 4
1. Which route source code represents the routing protocol with a default administrative distance of 90 in the routing table?
2. Which statement about native VLAN traffic is true?
Cisco Discovery Protocol traffic travels on the native VLAN by default*
Traffic on the native VLAN is tagged with 1 by default
Control plane traffic is blocked on the native VLAN.
The native VLAN is typically disabled for security reasons
3. Which statement about unicast frame forwarding on a switch is true?
The TCAM table stores destination MAC addresses
If the destination MAC address is unknown, the frame is flooded to every port that is configured in the same VLAN except on the port that it was received on.*
The CAM table is used to determine whether traffic is permitted or denied on a switch
The source address is used to determine the switch port to which a frame is forwarded
4. Which component of the routing table ranks routing protocols according to their preferences?
routing protocol code
5. Which switch would STP choose to become the root bridge in the selection process?
6. Requirement to configure DHCP binding ( 2 options)
7. how to see dhcp conflict?
show ip dhcp pool
show dhcp database
show ip dhcp conflict*
8. What type of MAC address is aged automatically by the switch?
one more option
9. Which major component of the network virtualization architecture isolate users according to policy?
network access control*
network services virtualization
Users are authenticated and either allowed or denied into a logical partition. Users are segmented into
employees, contractors and consultants, and guests, with respective access to IT assets. This component
identifies users who are authorized toaccess the network and then places them into the appropriate logical partition.
10. Which two statements about firewalls are true?
They can be used with an intrusion prevention system.*
They can limit unauthorized user access to protect data.*
Each wireless access point requires its own firewall.
They must be placed only at locations where the private network connects to the internet.
They can prevent attacks from the internet only.
11. Which two statements about data VLANs on access ports are true? ( Choose two)
They can be configured as trunk ports.
Two or more VLANs can be configured on the interface.
802.1Q encapsulation must be configured on the interface.
Exactly one VLAN can be configured on the interface.*
They can be configured as host ports.*
12. Where does the configuration reside when a helper address is configured to support DHCP?
on the switch trunk interface.
on the router closest to the client.*
on the router closest to the server.
on every router along the path.
13. Which command can you enter to configure an IPV6 floating static route?
Router(config)# ipv6 route static resolve default
Router(config)# ipv6 route::/0 serail0/1
Router(config)# ipv6 route FE80:0202::/32 serail 0/1 201*
Router(config)# ipv6 route FE80:0202::/32 serail 0/1 1
14. How does NAT overloading provide one-to-many address translation?
It uses a pool of addresses
It converts IPV4 addresses to unused IPv6 Addresses
assigns a unique TCP/UDP port to each session*
It uses virtual MAC Address and Virtual IP Addresses
15. Which three options are types of Layer 2 network attack? (Choose three)
Brute force attacks
16. What does split-horizon do?
Prevent routing loop in distance vector protocol*
Prevent switching loop in distance vector protocol
Prevent switching loop in link-state protocol
Prevent routing loop in link-state protocol
17. Refer to the exhibit.
After you apply the given configuration to R1, you notice that it failed to enable OSPF Which action can you take to correct the problem?
Configure a loopback interface on R1
Enable IPv6 unicast routing on R1.*
Configure an IPv4 address on interface FO/0.
Configure an autonomous system number on OSPF.
Prerequisites for IPv6 Routing: OSPFv3
Complete the OSPFv3 network strategy and planning for your IPv6 network. For example, you must decide whether multiple areas are required.
Enable IPv6 unicast routing.
Enable IPv6 on the interface.
18. How many broadcast domains are shown in the graphic assuming only the default VLAN is confgured on the switches?
19. Which three statements correcctly describe Network Device A? (Choose three.)
With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does not require an IP address.
With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.128, each interface does require an IP address on a unique IP subnet.*
With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 2 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.
With a network wide mask of 255.255.255.0, must be a Layer 3 device for the PCs to communicate with each other.*
With a network wide mask of 255.255.254.0, each interface does not require an IP address.*
20. At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?
Switch3, port fa0/1
Switch3, port fa0/12
Switch4, port fa0/11*
Switch4, port fa0/2
Switch3, port Gi0/1
Switch3, port Gi0/2
ID than Switch 4 (because the MAC of Switch3 is smaller than that of Switch4) so both ports of Switch3
will be in forwarding state. The alternative port will surely belong to Switch4.
Switch4 will need to block one of its ports to avoid a bridging loop between the two switches. But how
does Switch4 select its blocked port? Well, the answer is based on the BPDUs it receives from Switch3. A
BPDU is superior to another if it has:
1. A lower Root Bridge ID
2. A lower path cost to the Root
3. A lower Sending Bridge ID
4. A lower Sending Port ID
These four parameters are examined in order. In this specific case, all the BPDUs sent by Switch3 have
the same Root Bridge ID, the same path cost to the Root and the same Sending Bridge ID. The only
parameter left to select the best one is the Sending Port ID (Port ID = port priority + port index). In this
case the port priorities are equal because they use the default value, so Switch4 will compare port index
values, which are unique to each port on the switch, and because Fa0/12 is inferior to Fa0/1, Switch4 will
select the port connected with Fa0/1 (of Switch3) as its root port and block the other port -> Port fa0/11
of Switch4 will be blocked (discarding role).
21. Why is flash memory erased prior to upgrading the IOS image from the TFTP server?
The router cannot verify that the Cisco IOS image currently in flash is valid.
Flash memory on Cisco routers can contain only a single IOS image.
Erasing current flash content is requested during the copy dialog.*
In order for the router to use the new image as the default, it must be the only IOS image in flash.
22. The network shown in the diagram is experiencing connectivity problems. Which of the following will correct the problems? (Choose two.)
Configure the gateway on Host A as 10.1.1.1
Configure the gateway on Host B as 10.1.2.254*
Configure the IP address of Host A as 10.1.2.2
Configure the IP address of Host B as 10.1.2.2*
Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.224
Configure the masks on both hosts to be 255.255.255.240
23. Which utility can you use to identify the cause of a traffic-flow blockage between the two devices in a network?
ACL path analysis tool in APIC-EM
I WAN application
ACL analysis tool in APIC-EM*
APIC-EM automation scheduler
24. Which IEEE mechanism is responsible for the authentication of devices when they attempt to connect to a local network?
25. When a router is unable to find a known route in the routing table, how does it handle the packet?
It discards the packet
It sends the packet over the route with the best metric
It sends the packet to the next hop address
It sends the packet to the gateway of last resort*
26. If router R1 knows a static route to a destination network and then learns about the same destination network through a dynamic routing protocol, how does R1 respond?
It refuses to advertise the dynamic route to other neighbors
It sends a withdrawal signal to the neighboring router
It disables the routing protocol
It prefers the static route*
27. Which two statements about floating static routes are true? (Choose two)
They are routes to the exact /32 destination address
They are used when a route to the destination network is missing
They have a higher administrative distance than the default static route administrative distance*
They are used as back-up routes when the primary route goes down*
They are dynamic routes that are learned from a server
28. Refer to the exhibit.
If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.16.1.1, to which IP address does it send the packet?
29. What is the danger of the permit any entry in a NAT access list?
It can lead to overloaded resources on the router.*
It can cause too many addresses to be assigned to the same interface.
It can disable the overload command.
It prevents the correct translation of IP addresses on the inside network.
30. How does a DHCP server dynamically assign IP addresses to hosts?
Addresses are permanently assigned so that the host uses the same address at all times.
Addresses are assigned for a fixed period of time.
Addresses are leased to hosts. A host will usually keep the same address by periodically contacting the DHCP server to renew the lease.*
Addresses are allocated after a negotiation between the server and the host to determine the length of the agreement.
Release: The client may decide at any time that it no longer wishes to use the IP address it was assigned, and may terminate the lease, releasing the IP address.
31. Refer to the exhibit.
What two results would occur if the hub were to be replaced with a switch that is configured with one Ethernet VLAN? (Choose two.)
The number of collision domains would remain the same.
The number of collision domains would decrease.
The number of collision domains would increase.*
The number of broadcast domains would remain the same.*
The number of broadcast domains would decrease.
The number of broadcast domains would increase.
32. Refer to the exhibit.
You determine that Computer A cannot ping Computer B. Which reason for the problem is most likely true?
The Subnet mask for Computer A is incorrect.*
The default gateway address for Computer A is incorrect.
The subnet mask for computer B is incorrect.
The default gateway address for computer B is incorrect.
33. Which effect of the passive-interface command on R1 is true?
It prevents interface Fa0/0 from sending updates.*
Interface Fa 0/0 operates in RIPv1 mode.
It removes the 172.16.0.0 network from all updates on all interfaces on R1.
It removes the 172.17.0.0 network from all updates on all interfaces on R1.
But, when used with Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP), the effect is slightly different.
34. Which three encapsulation layers in the OSI model are combined into the TCP/IP application layer? (Choose three)
35. When is the most appropriate time to escalate an issue that you troubleshooting?
When you lack the proper to resolve the issue.
When a more urgent issue that requires your intervention is detected.
When you have gathered all information about an issue.*
When you have been unable to resolve the issue after 30 min.
36. Which two command can you enter to display the current time sources statistics on devices? (Choose TWO)
Show ntp associations.*
Show clock details.
Show ntp status.*
37. When you enable PortFast on a switch port, the port immediately transitions to which state?
38. Which path does a router choose when it receives a packet with multiple possible paths to the destination over different routing protocols?
the path with both the lowest administrative distance and the highest metric
the path with the lowest administrative distance*
the path with the lowest metric
the path with both the lowest administrative distance and lowest metric
39. Which command is used to know the duplex speed of serial link?
40. What command is used to configure a switch as authoritative NTP server?
switch(config)#ntp master 3*
switch(config)#ntp peer 184.108.40.206
switch(config)#ntp server 220.127.116.11
switch(config)#ntp source 18.104.22.168
41. Which address class includes network 22.214.171.124/27?
42. On which type of port can switches interconnect for multi-VLAN communication?
43. Refer to the exhibit.
If R1 sends traffic to 192.168.101.45 the traffic is sent through which interface?
44. Which IPV6 function serves the same purpose as ARP entry verification on an IPv4 network?
interface ip address verification
MAC address table verification
neighbor discovery verification*
Routing table entry verification
45. Which HSRP feature was new in HSRPv2?
VLAN group numbers that are greater than 255*
Virtual MAC addresses
46. Refer to exhibit.
Which command can you enter to verify link speed and duplex setting on the interface?
router#show ip protocols
router#show interface gig 0/1*
47. Which two statements about unique local IPv6 addresses are true?
They are identical to IPv4 private addresses.*
They are defined by RFC 1884
They use the prefix FEC0::/10
They use the prefix FC00::/7*
They can be routed on the IPv6 global internet.
48. Which DTP switch port mode allows the port to create a trunk link if the neighboring port is in trunk mode, dynamic desirable mode, or desirable auto mode?
49. When you troubleshoot an IPv4 connectivity issue on a router, which three router configuration checks you must perform?
Verify that the router interface IP address is correct.*
Verify that the DNS is configured correctly.
Verify that the router and the host use the same subnet mask.*
Verify that the router firmware is up-to-date.
Verify that a default route is configured.
Verify that the route appears in the Routing table*
50. Configuration of which option is required on a Cisco switch for the Cisco IP phone to work?
PortFast on the interface
the interface as an access port to allow the voice VLAN ID*
a voice VLAN ID in interface and global configuration mode
Cisco Discovery Protocol in global configuration mode
using a trunk link, it can cause high CPU utilization in the switches. As all the VLANs for a particular
interface are trunked to the phone, it increases the number of STP instances the switch has to manage.
This increases the CPU utilization. Trunking also causes unnecessary broadcast / multicast / unknown
unicast traffic to hit the phone link. In order to avoid this, remove the trunk configuration and keep the voice
and access VLAN configured along with Quality of Service (QoS). Technically, it is still a trunk, but it is
called a Multi-VLAN Access Port (MVAP). Because voice and data traffic can travel through the same port,
you should specify a different VLAN for each type of traffic. You can configure a switch port to forward
voice and data traffic on different VLANs. Configure IP phone ports with a voice VLAN configuration. This
configuration creates a pseudo trunk, but does not require you to manually prune the unnecessary VLANs.
The voice VLAN feature enables access ports to carry IP voice traffic from an IP phone.
The voice VLAN feature is disabled by default. The Port Fast feature is automatically enabled when voice
VLAN is configured. When you disable voice VLAN, the Port Fast feature is not automatically disabled
51. Which method does a connected trunk port use to tag VLAN traffic?
IEEE 802 1w
IEEE 802 1D
IEEE 802 1Q*
IEEE 802 1p
52. Which RFC was created to alleviate the depletion of IPv4 public addresses?
53. What is the default lease time for a DHCP binding?
54. Which NAT type is used to translate a single inside address to a single outside address?
55. Which network topology allows all traffic to flow through a central hub?
56. Which statement about a router on a stick is true?
Its date plane router traffic for a single VI AN over two or more switches.
It uses multiple subinterfaces of a single interface to encapsulate traffic for different VLANs on the same subnet
It requires the native VLAN to be disabled.
It uses multiple subinterfaces of a single interface to encapsulate traffic for different VLANs.*
57. By default, how many MAC addresses are permitted to be learned on a switch port with port security enabled?
58. Which device allows users to connect to the network using a single or double radio?
59. When enabled, which feature prevents routing protocols from sending hello messages on an interface?
The command enables the suppression of routing updates over some interfaces while it allows updates to
be exchanged normally over other interfaces. With most routing protocols, the passive-interface command
restricts outgoing advertisements only.
But, when used with Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP), the effect is slightly different.
This document demonstrates that use of the passive-interface command in EIGRP suppresses the
exchange of hello packets between two routers, which results in the loss of their neighbor relationship. This
stops not only routing updates from being advertised, but it also suppresses incoming routing updates. This
document also discusses the configuration required in order to allow the suppression of outgoing routing
updates, while it also allows incoming routing updates to be learned normally from the neighbor
60. Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement describes the effect of this configuration?
The VLAN 10 VTP configuration is displayed
VLAN 10 spanning-tree output is displayed
The VLAN 10 configuration is saved when the router exits VLAN configuration mode
VLAN 10 is added to the VLAN database*
61. which IP configuration does the CIDR notation 192.168.1.1/25 refer?
62. CIDR notation (255.255.255.252 ) / notation?
63. Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two)
RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.
RSTP defines new port roles.*
RSTP defines no new port states.
RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.
RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.*
64. What is known as ―one-to-nearest addressing in IPv6?
65. When a device learns multiple routes to a specific network, it installs the route with :
Longest bit Match (highest subnet Mask)
equal load balancing
66. Refer to the graphic.
R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1.
R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3
A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being established.
The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3.*
EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance.
R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.*
67. For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two.)
to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2*
to allow communication with devices on a different network
to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet
to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first
to allow communication between different devices on the same network*
to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown
68. 2 authentication type of MLPPP
69. What is the effect of the overload keyword in a static NAT translation configuration?
It enables port address translation.*
It enables the use of a secondary pool of IP addresses when the first pool is depleted
It enables the inside interface to receive traffic.
It enables the outside interface to forward traffic.
70. What are the requirements for running VTP (choose two)
VTP domain names must be different
VTP domain names must be the same*
VTP server must have the highest revision numbers*
All devices need to have the same VTP version
Follow these guidelines when deciding which VTP version to implement:
•All switches in a VTP domain must have the same domain name, but they do not need to run the same VTP version.
•A VTP version 2-capable switch can operate in the same VTP domain as a switch running VTP version 1 if version 2 is disabled on the version 2-capable switch (version 2 is disabled by default)