CCNA 4 v6.0 Practice Final Exam Answers 100%
CCNA 4 v6.0 Practice Exam Answers 100%
1. Which two components of a WAN would more likely be used by an ISP? (Choose two.)
2. What are two advantages of packet switching over circuit switching? (Choose two.)
The communication costs are lower.*
There are fewer delays in the data communications processes.
Multiple pairs of nodes can communicate over the same network channel.*
A dedicated secure circuit is established between each pair of communicating nodes.
A connection through the service provider network is established quickly before communications start.
3. What are two common types of circuit-switched WAN technologies? (Choose two.)
4. Under which two categories of WAN connections does Frame Relay fit? (Choose two.)
5. Which WAN technology is capable of transferring voice and video traffic by utilizing a fixed payload of 48 bytes for every frame?
6. Which type of long distance telecommunication technology provides point-to-point connections and cellular access?
7. A small law firm wants to connect to the Internet at relatively high speed but with low cost. In addition, the firm prefers that the connection be through a dedicated link to the service provider. Which connection type should be selected?
8. Refer to the exhibit.
What type of Layer 2 encapsulation will be used for connection D on the basis of this configuration on a newly installed router:
RtrA(config)# interface serial0/0/0
RtrA(config-if)# ip address 188.8.131.52 255.255.255.252
RtrA(config-if)# no shutdown
9. Which two protocols in combination should be used to establish a link with secure authentication between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router? (Choose two.)
10. Which statement is true about NCP?
Link termination is the responsibility of NCP.
Each network protocol has a corresponding NCP.*
NCP establishes the initial link between PPP devices.
NCP tests the link to ensure that the link quality is sufficient.
11. Refer to the exhibit.
Which three steps are required to configure Multilink PPP on the HQ router? (Choose three.)
Assign the serial interfaces to the multilink bundle.*
Assign the Fast Ethernet interface to the multilink bundle.
Enable PPP encapsulation on the multilink interface.
Enable PPP encapsulation on the serial interfaces.*
Bind the multilink bundle to the Fast Ethernet interface.
Create and configure the multilink interface.*
12. A network engineer is troubleshooting the failure of CHAP authentication over a PPP WAN link between two routers. When CHAP authentication is not included as part of the interface configuration on both routers, communication across the link is successful. What could be causing CHAP to fail?
The username configured on each router matches the hostname of the other router.
The secret password configured on each router is different.*
The clock rate has not been configured on the DCE serial interface.
The hostname configured on each router is different.
13. Which statement describes the difference between CHAP and PAP in PPP authentication?
PAP and CHAP provide equivalent protection against replay attacks.
PAP sends the password encrypted and CHAP does not send the password at all.
PAP uses a two-way handshake method and CHAP uses a three-way handshake method.*
PAP sends the password once and CHAP sends the password repeatedly until acknowledgment of authentication is received.
14. A technician at a remote location is troubleshooting a router and has emailed partial debug command output to a network engineer at the central office. The message that is received by the engineer only contains a number of LCP messages that relate to a serial interface. Which WAN protocol is being used on the link?
15. Which DSL technology provides higher downstream bandwidth to the user than upstream bandwidth?
16. Which communication protocol allows the creation of a tunnel through the DSL connection between the customer router and the ISP router to send PPP frames?
17. Which group of APIs are used by an SDN controller to communicate with various applications?
18. Which two technologies are core components of Cisco ACI architecture? (Choose two.)
Application Network Profile*
OpenFlow enabled switches
Interface to the Routing System
Application Policy Infrastructure Controller*
Transparent Interconnection of Lots of Links
19. Two corporations have just completed a merger. The network engineer has been asked to connect the two corporate networks without the expense of leased lines. Which solution would be the most cost effective method of providing a proper and secure connection between the two corporate networks?
Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Client with SSL
Cisco Secure Mobility Clientless SSL VPN
remote access VPN using IPsec
20. When GRE is configured on a router, what do the tunnel source and tunnel destination addresses on the tunnel interface refer to?
the IP addresses of the two LANs that are being connected together by the VPN
the IP address of host on the LAN that is being extended virtually
the IP addresses at each end of the WAN link between the routers*
the IP addresses of tunnel interfaces on intermediate routers between the connected routers
21. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
What problem is preventing the hosts from communicating across the VPN tunnel?
The EIGRP configuration is incorrect.
The tunnel IP addresses are incorrect.*
The tunnel source interfaces are incorrect.
The tunnel destinations addresses are incorrect.
22. Which routing protocol is used to exchange routing information between autonomous systems on the Internet?
23. Refer to the exhibit. For which autonomous system would running BGP not be appropriate?
24. What two functions describe uses of an access control list? (Choose two.)
ACLs assist the router in determining the best path to a destination.
Standard ACLs can restrict access to specific applications and ports.
ACLs provide a basic level of security for network access.*
ACLs can permit or deny traffic based upon the MAC address originating on the router.
ACLs can control which areas a host can access on a network.*
25. A network administrator is explaining to a junior colleague the use of the lt and gt keywords when filtering packets using an extended ACL. Where would the lt or gt keywords be used?
in an IPv6 extended ACL that stops packets going to one specific destination VLAN
in an IPv4 named standard ACL that has specific UDP protocols that are allowed to be used on a specific server
in an IPv6 named ACL that permits FTP traffic from one particular LAN getting to another LAN
in an IPv4 extended ACL that allows packets from a range of TCP ports destined for a specific network device*
26. Refer to the exhibit.
A router has an existing ACL that permits all traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network. The administrator attempts to add a new ACE to the ACL that denies packets from host 172.16.0.1 and receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit. What action can the administrator take to block packets from host 172.16.0.1 while still permitting all other traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network?
Manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 5.*
Manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 15.
Create a second access list denying the host and apply it to the same interface.
Add a deny any any ACE to access-list 1.
27. Which three implicit access control entries are automatically added to the end of an IPv6 ACL? (Choose three.)
deny ip any any
deny ipv6 any any*
permit ipv6 any any
deny icmp any any
permit icmp any any nd-ns*
permit icmp any any nd-na*
28. Which statement describes a difference between the operation of inbound and outbound ACLs?
In contrast to outbound ALCs, inbound ACLs can be used to filter packets with multiple criteria.
Inbound ACLs can be used in both routers and switches but outbound ACLs can be used only on routers.
Inbound ACLs are processed before the packets are routed while outbound ACLs are processed after the routing is completed.*
On a network interface, more than one inbound ACL can be configured but only one outbound ACL can be configured.
29. What is the result of a DHCP starvation attack?
Legitimate clients are unable to lease IP addresses.*
Clients receive IP address assignments from a rogue DHCP server.
The attacker provides incorrect DNS and default gateway information to clients.
The IP addresses assigned to legitimate clients are hijacked.
30. What is a recommended best practice when dealing with the native VLAN?
Turn off DTP.
Use port security.
Assign it to an unused VLAN.*
Assign the same VLAN number as the management VLAN.
31. Which management protocol can be used securely with Cisco devices to retrieve or write to variables in a MIB?
SNMP version 1
SNMP version 2
SNMP version 2c
SNMP version 3*
32. What are two benefits of using SNMP traps? (Choose two.)
They reduce the load on network and agent resources.*
They can passively listen for exported NetFlow datagrams.
They limit access for management systems only.
They can provide statistics on TCP/IP packets that flow through Cisco devices.
They eliminate the need for some periodic polling requests.*
33. What is an advantage of SNMPv3 over SNMPv1 or SNMPv2?
faster response times
support of other network monitoring protocols
34. What network monitoring tool copies traffic moving through one switch port, and sends the copied traffic to another switch port for analysis?
35. RSPAN depends on which type of VLAN?
black hole VLAN
36. Why is QoS an important issue in a converged network that combines voice, video, and data communications?
Data communications must be given the first priority.
Data communications are sensitive to jitter.
Voice and video communications are more sensitive to latency.*
Legacy equipment is unable to transmit voice and video without QoS.
37. What are two characteristics of voice traffic? (Choose two.)
It is delay sensitive.*
It is bursty.
It can tolerate latency up to 400 ms.
It consumes few network resources.*
It is insensitive to packet loss.
38. True or False.
DiffServ is a QoS strategy that enforces end-to-end guarantees.
39. What QoS step must occur before packets can be marked?
40. Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator has deployed QoS and has configured the network to mark traffic on the VoIP phones as well as the Layer 2 and Layer 3 switches. Where should initial marking occur to establish the trust boundary?
Trust Boundary 1*
Trust Boundary 2
Trust Boundary 3
Trust Boundary 4
41. Which IoT pillar provides the infrastructure for application mobility?
the Fog computing pillar
the application enablement platform pillar*
the network connectivity pillar
the management and automation pillar
42. What are three abstraction layers of a computer system? (Choose three.)
43. Users are reporting longer delays in authentication and in accessing network resources during certain time periods of the week. What kind of information should network engineers check to find out if this situation is part of a normal network behavior?
syslog records and messages
the network performance baseline*
debug output and packet captures
network configuration files
44. A user is unable to connect to the Internet. The network administrator decides to use the top-down troubleshooting approach. Which action should the administrator perform first?
Run the tracert command to identify the faulty device.
Check the patch cable connection from the PC to the wall.
Enter an IP address in the address bar of the web browser to determine if DNS has failed.*
Run the ipconfig command to verify the IP address, subnet mask, and gateway on the PC.
45. How do network administrators use IP SLAs to monitor a network and to detect a network failure early?
by using network protocol analyzers to evaluate errors
by measuring the CPU and memory usage on routers and switches
by simulating network data and IP services to collect network performance data in real time*
by taking a snap shot of network performance and comparing with an established baseline
46. What are two examples of network problems that are found at the data link layer? (Choose two.)
incorrect interface clock rates
late collisions and jabber
47. The output of the show ip interface brief command indicates that Serial0/0/0 is up but the line protocol is down. What are two possible causes for the line protocol being in the down state? (Choose two.)
The clock rate is not set on the DTE.
An incorrect default gateway is set on the router.
A network is missing from the routing protocol configuration.
The encapsulation on the Serial0/0/0 interface is incorrect.*
Keepalives are not being sent by the remote device.*
48. Refer to the exhibit.
A small office uses an ISR to provide connectivity for both wired and wireless computers. One day, a sales person who is using a laptop cannot connect to Server1 through the wireless network. A network technician attempts to determine if the problem is on the wireless or the wired network. The technician pings successfully from the wireless laptop to the default gateway IP address on the ISR. What should be the next troubleshooting step?
Ping from the laptop to PC1.
Ping from Server1 to PC1.
Ping from Server1 to its gateway IP address.*
Ping from the laptop to the Ethernet port on the cable modem.
49. Refer to the exhibit.
A ping from R1 to 10.1.1.2 is successful, but a ping from R1 to any address in the 192.168.2.0 network fails. What is the cause of this problem?
There is no gateway of last resort at R1.
The serial interface between the two routers is down.
A default route is not configured on R1.
The static route for 192.168.2.0 is incorrectly configured.*
50. Which feature is unique to IPv6 ACLs when compared to those of IPv4 ACLs?
the use of wildcard masks
an implicit deny any any statement
the use of named ACL statements
an implicit permit of neighbor discovery packets*
51. Match the QoS solution to the category. (Not all options are used.)
52. Match the QoS marking field to its corresponding OSI model layer.
53. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
A user reports that PC0 cannot visit the web server http://www.server.com. Troubleshoot the network configuration to identify the problem.
What are three configuration issues that are causing the problem? (Choose three.)
SW1 has a port configuration issue.*
VLAN 20 is not created correctly on SW1.
Routing on HQ is not configured correctly.*
One of the interfaces on Branch is not activated.*
The subinterface g0/0.1 on Branch is configured incorrectly for VLAN 10.
There is an encapsulation issue for the link between Branch and SW1.