CCNA 3 v6.0 Practice Final Exam Answers 100%


CCNA 3 Scaling Networks v6.0 Practice Final Exam Answers 100%

1. Which action should be taken when planning for redundancy on a hierarchical network design?

Immediately replace a nonfunctioning module, service ,or device on a network.

Purchase backup equipment for every network device at the distribution layer.

Implement STP PortFast between the switches on the network.

Add alternate physical paths for data to traverse the network.*

2. What is the function of STP in a scalable network?

It decreases the size of the failure domain to contain the impact of failures.

It protects the edge of the enterprise network from malicious activity.

It disables redundant paths to eliminate Layer 2 loops.*

It combines multiple switch trunk links to act as one logical link for increased bandwidth.

3. As the network administrator you have been asked to implement EtherChannel on the corporate network. What does this configuration consist of?

providing redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic

grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches*

grouping two devices to share a virtual IP address

providing redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device failure

4. How does implementing STP allow for a scalable network design?

It eliminates Layer 2 loops from redundant links.*

It provides failover services when duplicate network equipment is used.

It filters broadcasts and other undesirable traffic from the network.

It prevents local traffic from propagating to other parts of the network.

5. Which model and which two characteristics would be more likely to be considered in purchasing an access layer switch, as compared to buying switches that operate at the other layers of the Cisco hierarchical design model? (Choose three.)

Catalyst 2960*

Catalyst 4500X

number of ports*

PoE*

EtherChannel

RSTP

6. What is the function of ASICs in a multilayer switch?

They provide power to devices such as IP phones and wireless access points through Ethernet ports.

They streamline forwarding of IP packets in a multilayer switch by bypassing the CPU.*

They prevent Layer 2 loops by disabling redundant links between switches.

They aggregate multiple physical switch ports into a single logical port.

7. In a large enterprise network, which two functions are performed by routers at the distribution layer? (Choose two.)

connect remote networks*

provide Power over Ethernet to devices

connect users to the network

provide data traffic security*

provide a high-speed network backbone

8. Which two VTP modes allow for the creation, modification, and deletion of VLANs on the local switch? (Choose two.)

client

slave

server*

transparent*

master

distribution

9. Which three steps should be taken before moving a Cisco switch to a new VTP management domain? (Choose three.)

Reboot the switch.*

Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the domain.

Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain.

Configure the VTP server in the domain to recognize the BID of the new switch.

Select the correct VTP mode and version.*

Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain.*

10. The network administrator wants to configure a switch to pass VLAN update information to other switches in the domain but not update its own local VLAN database. Which two steps should the administrator perform to achieve this? (Choose two.)

Reset the VTP counters.

Configure VTP version 1 on the switch.

Configure the VTP mode of the switch to transparent.*

Verify that the switch has a higher configuration revision number.

Configure the switch with the same VTP domain name as other switches in the network.*

11. Refer to the exhibit.

The partial configuration that is shown was used to configure router on a stick for VLANS 10, 30, and 50. However, testing shows that there are some connectivity problems between the VLANs. Which configuration error is causing this problem?

A configuration for the native VLAN is missing.

There is no IP address configured for the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.

The wrong VLAN has been configured on subinterface Fa0/0.50.​*

The VLAN IP addresses should belong to the same subnet.​

12. Which two statements are characteristics of routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.)​

They are not associated with a particular VLAN.*

The interface vlan <vlan number> command has to be entered to create a VLAN on routed ports.

They support subinterfaces, like interfaces on the Cisco IOS routers.

They are used for point-to-multipoint links.

In a switched network, they are mostly configured between switches at the core and distribution layers.*

13. Refer to the exhibit.

A Layer 3 switch routes for three VLANs and connects to a router for Internet connectivity. Which two configurations would be applied to the switch? (Choose two.)

(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
(config-if)# no switchport
(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.252*

(config)# interface vlan 1
(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.0
(config-if)# no shutdown

(config)# interface gigabitethernet1/1
(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

(config)# interface fastethernet0/4
(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

(config)# ip routing*

14. Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch will be the root bridge after the election process is complete?

S1

S2*

S3

S4

15. What two STP features are incorporated into Rapid PVST+? (Choose two.)

UplinkFast*

PortFast

BPDU guard

BPDU filter

BackboneFast*

loop guard

16. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator is configuring PVST+ for the three switches. What will be a result of entering these commands?

S1 will set the priority value for VLAN 10 to 0.

S2 will set the priority value for VLAN 10 to 24576.

S3 will set the priority value for VLAN 30 to 8192.*

S1 will set the priority value for VLAN 20 to 24596.

17. Refer to the exhibit.

If the switch has been configured for PVST+ mode, what command output would replace the question marks?

ieee*

pvst

pvst+

rstp

18. Which function is provided by EtherChannel?

spreading traffic across multiple physical WAN links

dividing the bandwidth of a single link into separate time slots

enabling traffic from multiple VLANs to travel over a single Layer 2 link

creating one logical link by using multiple physical links between two LAN switches*

19. Which technology is an open protocol standard that allows switches to automatically bundle physical ports into a single logical link?

Multilink PPP

DTP

LACP*

PAgP

20. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator has connected two switches together using EtherChannel technology. If STP is running, what will be the end result?

The switches will load balance and utilize both EtherChannels to forward packets.

STP will block one of the redundant links.*

The resulting loop will create a broadcast storm.

Both port channels will shutdown.

21. What are two requirements to be able to configure an EtherChannel between two switches? (Choose two.)

The interfaces that are involved need to be contiguous on the switch.

All the interfaces need to work at the same speed.*

All the interfaces need to be working in the same duplex mode.*

All interfaces need to be assigned to different VLANs.

Different allowed ranges of VLANs must exist on each end.

22. Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the command output shown, what is the status of the EtherChannel?

The EtherChannel is dynamic and is using ports Fa0/10 and Fa0/11 as passive ports.

The EtherChannel is down as evidenced by the protocol field being empty.

The EtherChannel is partially functional as indicated by the P flags for the FastEthernet ports.

The EtherChannel is in use and functional as indicated by the SU and P flags in the command output.*

23. A network engineer is configuring a LAN with a redundant first hop to make better use of the available network resources. Which protocol should the engineer implement?

FHRP

GLBP*

HSRP

VRRP

24. Which dynamic routing protocol uses hop count to calculate metric value?

RIP*

EIGRP

OSPF

IS-IS

25. Which two commands are used in the implementation of a dynamic IPv4 routing protocol? (Choose two.)

ip route

network*

line

router*

interface

26. Which statement describes the Autonomous System number that is used in EIGRP?

It defines the reliability of the EIGRP routing protocol.

It identifies the priority of the networks to be included in update packets.

It is associated with the global Autonomous System number that is assigned by IANA.

It specifies the EIGRP routing process on a router.*

27. What are two reasons to implement passive interfaces in the EIGRP configuration of a Cisco router? (Choose two.)

to provide increased network security*

to shut down unused interfaces

to avoid unnecessary update traffic*

to mitigate attacks coming from the interfaces

to exclude interfaces from load balancing

28. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator issues the show ip protocols command. Based on the exhibited output, what can be concluded?

The EIGRP K values are default values.*

R1 receives routes to the network 192.168.1.0/24 and 10.0.0.0/24.

The no auto-summary command is not applied for the EIGRP operation.

Up to 4 routes of different metric values to the same destination network will be included in the routing table.

29. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator has issued the show ip eigrp neighbors command. What can be concluded from the output?

There is no incoming EIGRP message at this moment.

The first EIGRP neighbor R1 learned about has the IP address 10.10.10.2.*

An EIGRP neighbor with IP address 10.10.10.14 is connected to R1 via serial interface 0/1/0.

If R1 does not receive a Hello packet in 4 seconds from the neighbor with IP 10.10.10.18, it will declare the neighbor is down.

30. Which two metric weights are set to one by default when costs in EIGRP are being calculated? (Choose two.)

k1*

k2

k3*

k4

k5

k6

31. Which feature of the EIGRP routing protocol can provide fast re-convergence without DUAL recomputation in the event of a route failure?

having a successor route

having a feasible successor route*

having a route in the passive state

having a route in the active state

32. Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator attempts to configure EIGRP for IPv6 on a router and receives the error message that is shown. Which command must be issued by the administrator before EIGRP for IPv6 can be configured?

no shutdown

eigrp router-id 100.100.100.100

ipv6 unicast-routing*

ipv6 eigrp 100

ipv6 cef

33. Refer to the exhibit.

What will Router1 do if it receives packets that are destined to network 172.16.4.0/24?

drop the packets*

forward the packets to the gateway of last resort

send the packets out interface GigabitEthernet 0/0

send the packets to network 0.0.0.0

34. In which IOS CLI mode must a network administrator issue the maximum-paths command to configure load balancing in EIGRP?​

global configuration mode

interface configuration mode

privileged mode

router configuration mode*

35. Refer to the exhibit.

Which command will configure unequal-cost load balancing with EIGRP on the HQ router?

maximum-paths 1

maximum-paths 2

variance 1

variance 2*

36. Refer to the exhibit.

Why did R1 and R2 not establish an adjacency?

The AS number does not match on R1 and R2.*

The automatic summarization is enabled on R1 and R2.

The IPv4 address of Fa0/0 interface of R1 has a wrong IP address.​

There is no network command for the network 192.168.1.0/24 on R1.​

37. For troubleshooting missing EIGRP routes on a router, what three types of information can be collected using the show ip protocols command? (Choose three.)

any interfaces that are enabled for EIGRP authentication

any interfaces on the router that are configured as passive*

the IP addresses that are configured on adjacent routers

any ACLs that are affecting the EIGRP routing process*

networks that are unadvertised by the EIGRP routing protocol*

the local interface that is used to establish an adjacency with EIGRP neighbors

38. Refer to the exhibit.

The routing table on R2 does not include all networks that are attached to R1. The network administrator verifies that the network statement is configured to include these two networks. What is a possible cause of the issue?

The AS number does not match between R1 and R2.

The network statements should include the wild card mask.

The no auto-summary command is missing in the R1 configuration.*

The interfaces that are connected to these two networks are configured as passive interfaces.

39. A network administrator is troubleshooting the EIGRP routing between two routers, R1 and R2. The problem is found to be that only some, but not all networks attached to R1 are listed in the routing table of router R2. What should the administrator investigate on router R1 to determine the cause of the problem?

Does the AS number match the AS number on R2?

Does the hello interval setting match the hello interval on R2?

Do the network commands include all the networks to be advertised?*

Is the interface connected to R2 configured as a passive interface?

40. What is the order of packet types used by an OSPF router to establish convergence?

Hello, LSAck, LSU, LSR, DBD

LSAck, Hello, DBD, LSU, LSR

Hello, DBD, LSR, LSU, LSAck*

LSU, LSAck, Hello, DBD, LSR

41. Which wildcard mask would be used to advertise the 192.168.5.96/27 network as part of an OSPF configuration?

0.0.0.32

0.0.0.31*

255.255.255.224

255.255.255.223

42. What is the reason for a network engineer to alter the default reference bandwidth parameter when configuring OSPF?

to more accurately reflect the cost of links greater than 100 Mb/s*

to increase the speed of the link

to force that specific link to be used in the destination route

to enable the link for OSPF routing

43. Which OSPFv3 function works differently from OSPFv2?

metric calculation

hello mechanism

OSPF packet types

authentication*

election process

44. Refer to the exhibit.

Which address will R1 use as the source address for all OSPFv3 messages that will be sent to neighbors?

FE80::1*

2001:DB8:ACAD:A::1

FF02::1

FF02::5

45. What address type will OSPFv3 use to form adjacencies to neighboring routers?

the all-link router multicast

the global unicast of the interface

the all OSPF router multicast

the link-local address of the interface*

46. On what type of OSPF router is interarea route summarization configured?

intra-area routers

backbone routers

ABRs*

ASBRs

47. Which type of OSPF LSA represents an external route and is propagated across the entire OSPF domain?

type 1

type 2

type 3

type 4

type 5*

48. Which OSPF LSA type is only used in multiaccess and NBMA networks?

type 1

type 2*

type 3

type 4

49. Refer to the exhibit.

What can be concluded about network 192.168.1.0 in the R2 routing table?

This network has been learned from an internal router within the same area.

This network was learned through summary LSAs from an ABR.*

This network is directly connected to the interface GigabitEthernet0/0.

This network should be used to forward traffic toward external networks.

50. Refer to the exhibit.

What are three results for the DR and BDR elections for the given topologies? (Choose three.)

R4 is DR for segment B.

R2 is BDR for segment A.

R3 is DR for segment A.

R1 is DR for segment A.*

R3 is BDR for segment A.*

R5 is BDR for segment B.*

51. What is one reason to use the ip ospf priority command when the OSPF routing protocol is in use?

to activate the OSPF neighboring process

to influence the DR/BDR election process*

to provide a backdoor for connectivity during the convergence process

to streamline and speed up the convergence process

52. Refer to the exhibit.

Suppose that routers B, C, and D have a default priority, and router A has a priority 0. Which conclusion can be drawn from the DR/BDR election process?​

Router A will become the DR and router D will become the BDR.​

If the DR fails, the new DR will be router B.*

If a new router with a higher priority is added to this network, it will become the DR.

If the priority of router C is changed to 255, then it will become the DR.

53. Refer to the exhibit.

On which router or routers would a default route be statically configured in a corporate environment that uses single area OSPF as the routing protocol?

ISP

R0-A*

ISP and R0-A

R0-A, R0-B, and R0-C

R0-B and R0-C

ISP, R0-A, R0-B, and R0-C

54. Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator has configured OSPFv2 on the two Cisco routers as shown. The routers are unable to form a neighbor adjacency. What should be done to fix the problem?

Remove the FastEthernet0/0 passive interface configuration on router R1.

Add the command network 192.168.20.1 0.0.0.0 area 0 on router R1.

Add the command network 192.168.30.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 on router R1.

Change the IP address on S0/0 of router R2 to 192.168.20.2.*

55. An administrator is troubleshooting an adjacency issue between two OSPFv3 routers. Which two neighbor states indicate a stable adjacency between the routers? (Choose two.)

loading

2way*

full*

exstart

exchange

56. Fill in the blank.

In RSTP, BPDU frames are sent every “2” seconds by default.

57. Fill in the blank.

What is the acronym of an IGP, link-state, classless routing protocol besides IS-IS? “OSPF

58. Fill in the blank.

EIGRP keeps feasible successor routes in the “topology” table.

59. Fill in the blank.

By default, EIGRP is able to use up to “50” percent of the bandwidth for EIGRP messages on an EIGRP-enabled interface.

60. Match the switched LAN problem to the correct symptom. (Not all options are used.)

61. Match the port state with its condition. (Not all options are used.)

62. Match the step sequence to the multiarea OSPF route calculation process. (Not all options are used.)

63. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

Which message was displayed on the web server?

You’ve made it!*

Congratulations!

Wonderful work!

Work done!


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